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Suppose one believes that one race has a lower percentage of
people than some other with certain talents than another, e.g.
that blacks have lower intelligence on the average than whites,
or that Japanese have lower potential as professional basketball
players than American blacks.  Is one then a racist?

Perhaps there is an argument whereby the first belief makes one
a racist and the second doesn't.  I'd like to hear it.  I will
not be convinced by an argument that the first belief leads
to worse social policy and the other doesn't.  Even if that
belief did lead to worse social policy, that wouldn't make
it false.

I believe that everyone must be treated individually, letting
the chips fall where they may as regards distribution.

However, there is a question of what constitutes evidence that
people are not being treated as individuals.  Does inequality
of result in two groups constitute evidence that one group
is being discriminated against.  I don't think so.

However, what about evidence that in one environment, two groups
do equally well, but in another environment they don't?  That
might well be regarded as evidence that the second environment
involves discrimination, provided there was no evidence in favor
of reverse discrimination in the first environment.

Arguments about the present situation are confused by the fact
that we aren't far beyond a past in which all kinds of evidence
for racial discrimination was available.  Actual laws.
Moreover, there is still unequal schooling.  Therefore, in my
opinion, affirmative action of the kind that provides extra
teaching is justified.

What about affirmative action in employment?